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Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 MCQs with Answers and Ads


Class 12 Biology Chapter 6: Molecular Basis of Inheritance – 100 MCQs with Answers



1. The DNA is a polymer of:

A) Monosaccharides
B) Nucleotides
C) Fatty acids
D) Amino acids
Answer: B) Nucleotides
2. Who proposed the double helix model of DNA?

A) Watson and Crick
B) Franklin and Wilkins
C) Mendel
D) Hershey and Chase
Answer: A) Watson and Crick
3. Purines are:

A) Adenine and Thymine
B) Adenine and Guanine
C) Guanine and Uracil
D) Thymine and Cytosine
Answer: B) Adenine and Guanine
4. Which is a pyrimidine base in RNA only?

A) Cytosine
B) Thymine
C) Uracil
D) Adenine
Answer: C) Uracil
5. DNA replication is:

A) Conservative
B) Semiconservative
C) Dispersive
D) Non-conservative
Answer: B) Semiconservative
6. DNA polymerase adds nucleotides in direction:

A) 3’ → 5’
B) 5’ → 3’
C) Randomly
D) Both
Answer: B) 5’ → 3’
7. Okazaki fragments are joined by:

A) DNA polymerase
B) DNA ligase
C) Helicase
D) Primase
Answer: B) DNA ligase
8. Hershey-Chase experiment involved:

A) Mice
B) Bacteria and viruses
C) Plants
D) Fungi
Answer: B) Bacteria and viruses
9. Which type of RNA carries amino acids?

A) mRNA
B) tRNA
C) rRNA
D) snRNA
Answer: B) tRNA
10. A gene is:

A) Protein molecule
B) DNA segment
C) RNA molecule
D) Nucleus
Answer: B) DNA segment



11. The backbone of DNA is made up of:

A) Bases
B) Phosphate and sugar
C) Amino acids
D) Fatty acids
Answer: B) Phosphate and sugar
12. Which RNA is most abundant in cells?

A) mRNA
B) tRNA
C) rRNA
D) hnRNA
Answer: C) rRNA
13. The first step of gene expression is:

A) Translation
B) Transcription
C) Replication
D) Splicing
Answer: B) Transcription
14. The bond between bases A and T is:

A) One hydrogen bond
B) Two hydrogen bonds
C) Three hydrogen bonds
D) Disulfide bond
Answer: B) Two hydrogen bonds
15. The coding segments of eukaryotic DNA are:

A) Introns
B) Exons
C) Both
D) None
Answer: B) Exons
16. Chromatin is composed of:

A) DNA and protein
B) Only DNA
C) Only protein
D) RNA
Answer: A) DNA and protein
17. DNA is present in which organelle?

A) Nucleus
B) Mitochondria
C) Plastids
D) All above
Answer: D) All above
18. Removal of introns is called:

A) Replication
B) Splicing
C) Capping
D) Polyadenylation
Answer: B) Splicing
19. The enzyme in transcription is:

A) DNA polymerase
B) RNA polymerase
C) Ligase
D) Helicase
Answer: B) RNA polymerase
20. The central dogma of molecular biology is:

A) Protein → RNA → DNA
B) DNA → RNA → Protein
C) DNA → Protein → RNA
D) RNA → DNA → Protein
Answer: B) DNA → RNA → Protein



21. The process of making RNA from DNA is called:

A) Translation
B) Transcription
C) Replication
D) Mutation
Answer: B) Transcription
22. In prokaryotes, transcription and translation:

A) Are coupled
B) Are separate
C) Occur in different organelles
D) Never happen
Answer: A) Are coupled
23. The start codon is:

A) UAG
B) AUG
C) UAA
D) UGA
Answer: B) AUG
24. Griffith’s experiment proved:

A) Protein is genetic material
B) DNA is genetic material
C) Transformation principle
D) RNA as enzyme
Answer: C) Transformation principle
25. Which is an enzyme for DNA synthesis?

A) DNA polymerase
B) RNA polymerase
C) Ligase
D) Protease
Answer: A) DNA polymerase
26. What are Chargaff’s rules about base pairing?

A) A = T, G = C
B) A = C, G = T
C) All bases equal
D) No rule
Answer: A) A = T, G = C
27. DNA is synthesised from which direction?

A) 3’ → 5’
B) 5’ → 3’
C) Both
D) None
Answer: B) 5’ → 3’
28. Which is stop codon?

A) UUU
B) UAG
C) AUG
D) GCA
Answer: B) UAG
29. DNA fingerprinting is based on:

A) Satellite DNA
B) Coding DNA
C) Proteins
D) Ribosomes
Answer: A) Satellite DNA
30. The length of one complete turn of DNA is:

A) 34 Å
B) 20 Å
C) 3.4 Å
D) 2.0 nm
Answer: A) 34 Å



31. RNA differs from DNA by:

A) Ribose sugar
B) Uracil
C) Single strand
D) All
Answer: D) All
32. Number of nucleotides in one turn of DNA:

A) 10
B) 20
C) 4
D) 6
Answer: A) 10
33. The enzyme helicase helps in:

A) Unwinding DNA
B) Synthesizing DNA
C) Joining DNA fragments
D) Proofreading
Answer: A) Unwinding DNA
34. Human genome has about:

A) 3 million base pairs
B) 3 billion base pairs
C) 10 thousand base pairs
D) 3 thousand genes
Answer: B) 3 billion base pairs
35. Nucleosome core particle is wrapped by:

A) 100 bp DNA
B) 146 bp DNA
C) 400 bp DNA
D) 1000 bp DNA
Answer: B) 146 bp DNA
36. The first eukaryotic gene cloned was of:

A) Yeast
B) Pea
C) Wheat
D) Human
Answer: D) Human
37. In eukaryotic cell, transcription occurs in:

A) Cytoplasm
B) Nucleus
C) Mitochondria
D) Ribosome
Answer: B) Nucleus
38. The process of forming mRNA from DNA:

A) Translation
B) Transcription
C) Replication
D) Transformation
Answer: B) Transcription
39. Principal of DNA fingerprinting was developed by:

A) Watson
B) Kary Mullis
C) Alec Jeffreys
D) Avery
Answer: C) Alec Jeffreys
40. Meselson and Stahl proved DNA replication is:

A) Dispersive
B) Conservative
C) Semiconservative
D) None
Answer: C) Semiconservative



41. Removal of RNA primer is done by:

A) Ligase
B) DNA polymerase I
C) DNA polymerase II
D) Helicase
Answer: B) DNA polymerase I
42. DNA double helix model was based on:

A) Light microscopy
B) X-ray diffraction
C) Chromatography
D) Chemical tests
Answer: B) X-ray diffraction
43. Spliceosome is associated with:

A) DNA replication
B) RNA splicing
C) Protein synthesis
D) Transformation
Answer: B) RNA splicing
44. Promoter site is important during:

A) Translation
B) Transcription
C) Replication
D) Splicing
Answer: B) Transcription
45. RNA primer is synthesized by:

A) Primase
B) Polymerase
C) Ligase
D) Helicase
Answer: A) Primase
46. TATA Box is a:

A) Promoter region
B) Enhancer
C) Coding DNA
D) Repressor
Answer: A) Promoter region
47. The enzyme reverse transcriptase is present in:

A) Bacteria
B) Retroviruses
C) Plants
D) Fungi
Answer: B) Retroviruses
48. mRNA codon for methionine:

A) AUG
B) UAG
C) UGA
D) UAA
Answer: A) AUG
49. DNA as genetic material was proved by:

A) Hershey-Chase
B) Griffith
C) Watson-Crick
D) Franklin
Answer: A) Hershey-Chase
50. Stop codons do NOT code for:

A) tRNA
B) mRNA
C) Any amino acid
D) None
Answer: C) Any amino acid



51. Mutations are changes in:

A) Nucleotide sequence
B) Protein sequence
C) Fat sequence
D) Sugar sequence
Answer: A) Nucleotide sequence
52. ‘Wobble hypothesis’ is related to:

A) DNA
B) rRNA
C) tRNA anticodon
D) Mutation
Answer: C) tRNA anticodon
53. DNA fingerprinting technique involves:

A) PCR
B) VNTR analysis
C) mRNA study
D) tRNA study
Answer: B) VNTR analysis
54. Genetic code is:

A) Overlapping
B) Universal
C) Ambiguous
D) None
Answer: B) Universal
55. Eukaryotic mRNA processing involves:

A) Capping
B) Tailing
C) Splicing
D) All
Answer: D) All
56. Mutagens are agents inducing:

A) Replication
B) Mutation
C) Splicing
D) Translation
Answer: B) Mutation
57. The nucleosome model of chromatin was proposed by:

A) Watson
B) Kornberg
C) Crick
D) Franklin
Answer: B) Kornberg
58. RNA splicing removes:

A) Exons
B) Introns
C) Both
D) None
Answer: B) Introns
59. The site of translation in cell:

A) Nucleus
B) Ribosome
C) Mitochondria
D) Chromosome
Answer: B) Ribosome
60. Antiparallel strands mean:

A) Same direction
B) Opposite direction
C) No direction
D) Circular strands
Answer: B) Opposite direction



61. The repeating unit of chromatin is:

A) Chromatid
B) Nucleosome
C) Gene
D) Nucleus
Answer: B) Nucleosome
62. Number of hydrogen bonds between G and C:

A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Answer: C) Three
63. DNA that can transfer between bacteria is:

A) Plasmid
B) Chromosomal
C) Satellite
D) Nucleolar
Answer: A) Plasmid
64. The function of rRNA is:

A) Code for protein
B) Structure of ribosome
C) Carry amino acids
D) All
Answer: B) Structure of ribosome
65. mRNA is synthesized from DNA template by:

A) DNA polymerase
B) RNA polymerase
C) Ligase
D) Helicase
Answer: B) RNA polymerase
66. Which is NOT a stop codon?

A) UAG
B) UAA
C) UGA
D) AUG
Answer: D) AUG
67. Proteins are synthesized at:

A) Golgi
B) Ribosome
C) Nucleus
D) Lysosome
Answer: B) Ribosome
68. Polysome is a:

A) Group of ribosomes on mRNA
B) Protein
C) RNA
D) Chromosome
Answer: A) Group of ribosomes on mRNA
69. DNA and RNA differ in:

A) Sugar
B) Bases
C) Strand
D) All
Answer: D) All
70. The backbone of RNA is:

A) Sugar-phosphate
B) Base-pair
C) Fatty acid
D) Protein
Answer: A) Sugar-phosphate



71. Griffith’s experiment worked with:

A) Pea
B) Wheat
C) Pneumococcus
D) E. coli
Answer: C) Pneumococcus
72. Proteins are synthesized from:

A) mRNA template
B) tRNA template
C) DNA directly
D) None
Answer: A) mRNA template
73. Anticodon is present on:

A) mRNA
B) rRNA
C) tRNA
D) DNA
Answer: C) tRNA
74. Released polypeptide chain detaches at:

A) Start codon
B) Stop codon
C) Any codon
D) mRNA initiator
Answer: B) Stop codon
75. Hybridization probes are labelled fragments of:

A) DNA
B) Protein
C) Lipids
D) Carbohydrates
Answer: A) DNA
76. Sense strand of DNA has sequence:

A) Complementary to mRNA
B) Same as mRNA
C) Opposite to mRNA
D) None
Answer: B) Same as mRNA
77. VNTRs stand for:

A) Variable Number of Tandem Repeats
B) Very Normal Tandem Reads
C) Virus Number Tracer Regions
D) None
Answer: A) Variable Number of Tandem Repeats
78. Which of the following is NOT true about genetic code?

A) Unambiguous
B) Degenerate
C) Reads triplets
D) Overlapping
Answer: D) Overlapping
79. Ribozymes are:

A) Enzymatic RNA
B) Enzymatic DNA
C) Proteins
D) Lipids
Answer: A) Enzymatic RNA
80. Pribnow box is found in:

A) Prokaryotes
B) Eukaryotes
C) Plants
D) Animals
Answer: A) Prokaryotes



81. Direction of coding on sense strand is:

A) 3’ → 5’
B) 5’ → 3’
C) Any direction
D) No direction
Answer: B) 5’ → 3’
82. Which is not a function of tRNA?

A) Carrying amino acid
B) Pairing with codon
C) Providing mRNA template
D) Having anticodon
Answer: C) Providing mRNA template
83. Telomerase synthesizes:

A) Chromosome ends
B) RNA
C) Ribosome
D) Protein
Answer: A) Chromosome ends
84. The sequence coding for a single amino acid is called:

A) Codon
B) Anticodon
C) Intron
D) Exon
Answer: A) Codon
85. RNA primer is required for:

A) DNA replication
B) RNA synthesis
C) Protein synthesis
D) None
Answer: A) DNA replication
86. The percentage of purine is equal to:

A) Pyrimidine
B) DNA
C) Adenine
D) Guanine
Answer: A) Pyrimidine
87. In bacteria, DNA replication is:

A) Unidirectional
B) Bidirectional
C) Only at one end
D) Only at origin
Answer: B) Bidirectional
88. Which is NOT an enzyme in DNA replication?

A) Primase
B) Ligase
C) Polymerase
D) Sucrase
Answer: D) Sucrase
89. In eukaryotes, gene regulation is by:

A) Operon model
B) Histone modification
C) Only by methylation
D) Only enhancers
Answer: B) Histone modification
90. The coding sequence in mRNA for protein is:

A) Exon
B) Intron
C) Enhancer
D) Silencer
Answer: A) Exon



91. Avery–McLeod–McCarty experiment showed:

A) Protein is hereditary material
B) DNA is hereditary material
C) RNA is hereditary material
D) All above
Answer: B) DNA is hereditary material
92. Sanger’s method is used for:

A) Protein sequencing
B) DNA sequencing
C) RNA editing
D) Gene modification
Answer: B) DNA sequencing
93. Replication origins in eukaryotes:

A) Single
B) Multiple
C) No origins
D) Fused
Answer: B) Multiple
94. PCR stands for:

A) Protein Chain Reaction
B) Polymerase Chain Reaction
C) Phosphate Chain Reaction
D) Peptide Chain Reaction
Answer: B) Polymerase Chain Reaction
95. Central dogma of genetics is proposed by:

A) Watson
B) Crick
C) Mendel
D) Griffith
Answer: B) Crick
96. In eukaryotes, split genes were discovered by:

A) Robert C. Gallo
B) Sharp and Roberts
C) Kornberg
D) Meselson
Answer: B) Sharp and Roberts
97. A nucleoside consists of:

A) Sugar and base
B) Sugar, base, phosphate
C) Base and phosphate
D) Only base
Answer: A) Sugar and base
98. DNA replication in mitochondria is:

A) Unidirectional
B) Circular
C) Bidirectional
D) None
Answer: B) Circular
99. First step in gene expression is:

A) Transcription
B) Translation
C) Replication
D) Recombination
Answer: A) Transcription
100. The enzyme joining DNA fragments is:

A) Ligase
B) Polymerase
C) Endonuclease
D) Exonuclease
Answer: A)

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